tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-37411904949295309752012-02-16T03:58:37.815-08:00PSYCHIATRY TODAY http://www.blogger.com/profile/18302468592040291092noreply@blogger.comBlogger11100tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3741190494929530975.post-59564288770723674972010-02-14T15:42:00.000-08:002010-02-14T15:46:46.914-08:00I came across the following issue in my psychiatry rounds. This is a 46 year old African American male patient who has had persistently elevated CPK's and at one <br />point even the MB fraction was slightly elevated. The highest CPK was up to <br />1500. Now it is lingering in the 400's. MB is normal. Trop I has been normal. He <br />is not clear about muscle aches, but he does get up feeling stiff. He is newly <br />diabetic, and has not been on statins that obviously could cause myositis.<br />What should be done? I already talked to a fellow neurologist that <br />told me this could be benign. But what does it mean?<div class="blogger-post-footer"><img width='1' height='1' src='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/tracker/3741190494929530975-5956428877072367497?l=psychiatrytodayforum.blogspot.com' alt='' /></div>PSYCHIATRY TODAY http://www.blogger.com/profile/18302468592040291092noreply@blogger.com1